Practice Exam | National Board of Medication Therapy Management

Practice Examination
INSTRUCTIONS
1. The practice exam may be used by candidates to identify areas in which further study may be needed in anticipation of taking an official competency-based examination.
2. The practice exam is an optional assessment tool and not a study guide for a certification examination.
3. The practice exam is not the only or preferred route to adequate preparation for taking the certification examination.
4. It is important to note that performance on a Practice Examination is not a predictor of whether a candidate will pass or fail the competency-based NBMTM Certification Examination. Taking the practice exam is not required and does not give an advantage over candidates who do not choose to take them and is not the only or preferred route to adequate preparation for the certification examination.
5. There is only one version of the BCMTMS practice exam.
6. Exam content is based on NBMTM’s test specifications (exam content).
7. The practice exam consists of 15 multiple-choice items.
8. Questions were developed by NBMTM content experts.
9. Unlike the certification examination results, which are reported in scaled scores, Practice Exam Scores are reported in percentages.
10. The results will be emailed to you upon completion of the practice exam.
11. You may take as much time as you wish to take this practice exam. Keep in mind the actual BCMTMS exam has 200 questions and you are allowed up to four hours to take it.
12. Once you finish, NBMTM will email you a summary of your performance and an itemization of the correct and incorrect responses to each question.

Provide your information, the results will be emailed to you after completing your practice examination.
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1. Which antidepressant is approved for major depressive disorder in children and adolescent?*
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Vortioxetine
- C. Citalopram
- D. All of the above

2. MT is a 45-year-old man who suffered from severe depression for many years. There has been concern about his risk of suicide. Which of the following class of antidepressants is safest for him?*
- A. TCA
- B. MAOI
- C. Atypical agents
- D. SSRI

3. Which is a part of the Comprehensive Medication Review (CMR), specifically designed to outline the patient’s responsibility in helping to solve various identified problems?*
- A. Medication Action Plan
- B. Patient Educational Inserts
- C. Manufacturer Package Inserts
- D. Comprehensive List

4. While conducting a telephonic comprehensive medication review for a pharmacy benefit manager, the patient mentions that she had a liver transplant two years ago. While looking at the claims data for her Medicare Part D plan, you do not see any claims for immunosuppressants. Which of the following is most likely correct?*
- A. MD discontinued the medications because it was needed for only two years
- B. The patient has been getting the medications from Canada due to the expense
- C. The patient was using a coupon savings card instead of her Medicare Part D card
- D. The immunosuppressants were paid by her Medicare part B plan

5. Which of the following is NOT the AMA’s (American Medical Association) position on MTM?*
- A. Funds should be allocated for MTM services only if there is substantial evidence for better patient outcomes and cost-effectiveness with pharmacist-led MTM.
- B. Physicians should be fully informed when their patient is in an MTM program.
- C. The physician should be kept apprised at every step if a pharmacist recommends any medication changes or counseling patient about anything beyond adherence.
- D. The pharmacist must be physically present in the physician’s office when conducting a Comprehensive Medication Review (CMR).

6. Recent research indicates patients still believe the physician and not the pharmacist should do the discussion of side effects of medications. What are some ways as a pharmacist you can do to overcome that when you try to discuss side effects?*
- A. Explain to the patient that you have a PharmD, which is a doctoral degree and that makes you qualified to discuss side effects
- B. Before giving information on medications, first, ask the patient what the doctor told him or her to expect from this medication
- C. Explain the patient the roles of the pharmacist
- D. None of the above

7. When using motivational interviewing, which is the best response after a patient states, “I do not need to take Eliquis, I am already on aspirin, and that is the only blood thinner needed for my AFib.”*
- A. “Although aspirin can thin the blood, it may not be enough to prevent strokes if it is taking independent of Eliquis.”
- B. “Is it ok if I share some information about your condition and the Eliquis.”
- C. “You should listen to your MD because there is a good reason why he or she prescribed that medication”
- D. “Not taking Eliquis will increase the likelihood of heart attacks and stroke.”

8. Which of the following is the reason why pharmacists are more liable when performing comprehensive medication reviews?*
- A. Pharmacists would automatically obtain provider status once they conduct a CMR
- B. Conducting a CMR is considered a dispensing service and more liability is implied
- C. Pharmacists generally obtain more information on the list of medications, indications, and medical history. Since pharmacists are more aware, they are liable.
- D. CMRs involve recommendations to physicians

9. Which of the following is the main goal of treatment of bipolar disorder?*
- A. Manage acute attacks and decrease its severity
- B. Increase energy for patients
- C. Treat negative symptoms
- D. All of the above

10. Which of the following is false in regards to payment for MTMS (Medication Therapy Management Services)?*
- A. MTM services are part of the administrative cost for Medicare Part D health plans
- B. The rates/method of reimbursements that pharmacists receive depend on the individual Medicare part D health plan
- C. Medicare Part D health care plans are required to maintain some oversight or intervention for patients who meet the Medicare Part D
- D. All of the above are correct

11. During a comprehensive medication review, you are presented with a 32-year-old male patient with uncontrolled asthma who is currently taking a corticosteroid, a long acting beta-2 agonist, and a leukotriene modifier. He tells you that the doctor wants to prescribe theophylline. Which of the following is false regarding the use of theophylline?*
- A. It can cause insomnia
- B. The desired drug reference range is 5-15 mcg/mL
- C. It decreases seizure thresholds
- D. It decreases the risk of heart arrhythmias

12. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can decrease the clearance of theophylline?*
- A. Old age
- B. Pneumonia
- C. High Carbohydrate Diet
- D. Smoking

13. The extensive use of medications by the geriatric population*
- A. Increases risk of adverse drug events (ADEs)
- B. Increases risk of drug interactions
- C. Contributes to medication nonadherence among patients
- D. All of the above

14. A 67-year-old female presents to her primary care provider with a 2-week history of palpitations. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes, and heart failure. Her medications include lisinopril, carvedilol, furosemide, metformin, and warfarin. Which of the following medications should be added to control ventricular rate?*
- A. Verapamil
- B. Diltiazem
- C. Digoxin
- D. Propafenone

15. During a CMR, the patient states that isosorbide mononitrate was prescribed for her nausea and vomiting. She also tells you that her doctor told her she has chronic stable angina, but she does not experience chest pain on an ongoing basis. Which of the following is correct?*
- A. She has been misdiagnosed and her correct diagnosis is acid reflux
- B. Patient experiences silent ischemia
- C. She experiences atypical symptoms of angina which is nausea, vomiting, or sharp chest pain
- D. Nausea and vomiting are classic symptoms of angina

Practice Examination

INSTRUCTIONS